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					  Originally Posted by  daviddem
					 
				 
				40/20 with 75%  limp/ call is not stationey enough? And then bluffing the  river when they missed and are checked to, is that not what they often do?  Even Spoon said recently that bet-bet-c/c is a standard postflop line vs villains who chase draws. 
			
		 
	 
 The underlined portion isn't relevant if A) we don't expect him to bluff with draws, and B) he has a lot of hands he'll call with that will not bet when checked to. 
 
Villain could have flopped a boat or quads, and 22 probably calls the flop a decent percentage of the time. Villain rarely has a K (would have raised pre-flop with broadways and doesn't limp enough to have Kxs often), rarely has 65 or 54 or 43 (would have raised flop or turn b/c of flush draw), rarely has A4 (would have raised at some point b/c of flush draw), and rarely has A5 (would have raised turn b/c of flush draw). However, 55-99 are very likely to be played exactly as Villain has played them. 
 
Board: 4d 3d 4h 2s Kc 
 
Beats us: 22, 33, 44, 43, 54, 65, A4, A5 
We beat: 55, 66, 77, 88, 99 
 
I'll weight the hands with the following approximations: 
 
22 - 2 combos, folds the flop sometimes 
33 - 3 combos, probably always plays it this way 
44 - 1 combo, probably always plays it this way 
43s - 1 combo, 2 are available but probably folds it pre-flop sometimes 
54s - 1 combo, 2 are available but he raises turn often 
65s - 2 combos, 4 are available but he raises turn often 
A4 - 4 combos, 8 are available be he raises flop or turn often 
A5 - 6 combos, 16 are available but he folds flop sometimes and raises turn often 
 
55 - 5 combos, 6 available, but possibly folds river 
66 - 5 combos, 6 available, but possibly folds river 
77 - 6 combos, probably always plays it this way and calls river 
88 - 6 combos, probably always plays it this way and calls river 
99 - 4 combos, 6 available, but possibly raises pre-flop 
 
With these approximations, we have a decent value bet on the river.
					 
				 
				
			 
			 
		  
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