Two hands: Chasing with 65s

First hand you were bluffing, you were the one betting! I think as played is perfect.

Second hand, I'd probably go mental on the flop if I got this far. We're actually ahead of pretty much any realistic range we give him. QQ+ gives us 51%. I'd raise this for sure, he folds his AK if he can have it and shoves his QQ+, allowing us to get it in with the better equity. And if he has KK/AA only, all the better, we're up to 54%. And we might have fold equity against a nit holding KK/AA in this spot.

*AK diamonds is the only hand we don't want to see, that's the only hand he can have capable of destroying our equity. Does he pot this at the flop? I'm not sure.

Originally Posted by NightGizmo

H2 -- You have a lot of equity on this flop against his range, raise it up.

Originally Posted by OngBonga

I'd raise this for sure, he folds his AK if he can have it and shoves his QQ+...*AK diamonds is the only hand we don't want to see, that's the only hand he can have capable of destroying our equity. Does he pot this at the flop? I'm not sure.

Thanks for posting. At the time my thinking was villain is getting it all-in so why not leave ourselves an out. We dont need to raise the pot for a later shove. I think AdKd would take this line.

Originally Posted by !Luck

H1: I am tempted to check it back as you don't have great fold equity against 3 villains, sure some of them will fold things that beat you, but there are just too many and it would be tragic if someone raises you BIG and you have to fold. so check it back.

I'm betting to build the pot, not fold out everyone. I have equity to call should somebody shove over.

Originally Posted by couriermike

agree with everybody, hand 1 is good, hand 2 raise big (or even just shove) otf when you have so much equity and some FE, as played, fold turn, you only have 25% equity, not enough to call.

Turn is an easy call with implied odds

1.80/10.02 = 18%

equity win tie pots won pots tied
Hand 0: 31.250% 31.25% 00.00% 165 0.00 { 6d5d }
Hand 1: 68.750% 68.75% 00.00% 363 0.00 { QQ+ }

Originally Posted by Openside

I think AdKd would take this line.

To be fair, it might well do. I'd certainly cbet it, and potting when semi-bluffing is effective when we get called, make our hand on the turn and then check it over... you wouldn't believe how much spew that induces, it's one of my favourite tricks!

But even if AdKd takes this line, it's ok, it's only part of his range. It's the only hand that crushes us, everything else he can 3bet pre with we are in good shape against.

Agree as played turn is a call based on implied odds, villain is committed to calling a river shove after his turn bet, but I'd much prefer to be all in already.

Originally Posted by Openside

Turn is an easy call with implied odds

1.80/10.02 = 18%

equity win tie pots won pots tied
Hand 0: 31.250% 31.25% 00.00% 165 0.00 { 6d5d }
Hand 1: 68.750% 68.75% 00.00% 363 0.00 { QQ+ }

where do you get the 10.02 from? it looks like calling is close to breakeven so long as villain always stacks off when you hit.

ah, you shouldn't count your own future bets when figuring implied odds. here, you're risking 1.8 to win 2.76(pot)+1.8(villain's current bet)+1.83(what villain has behind)=6.39 which gives implied odds of 1.8/6.39 = 28%. so it's close, slightly +ev, assuming villian always stacks when you hit, which does seem likely here.

Originally Posted by couriermike

where do you get the 10.02 from? it looks like calling is close to breakeven so long as villain always stacks off when you hit.

ah, you shouldn't count your own future bets when figuring implied odds. here, you're risking 1.8 to win 2.76(pot)+1.8(villain's current bet)+1.83(what villain has behind)=6.39 which gives implied odds of 1.8/6.39 = 28%. so it's close, slightly +ev, assuming villian always stacks when you hit, which does seem likely here.

I got 10.02 via 2.76(pot)+1.8(villain's current bet)+1.8(our call) +1.83(what villain has behind)+1.83(what we have behind).

If its not 10.02 wouldnt it be 8.19? You are not counting our 1.8 call in your calculation.
1.8/8.19 = 21%, which is still an obv call.

Can somebody clarify? ty ty

Originally Posted by Openside

I got 10.02 via 2.76(pot)+1.8(villain's current bet)+1.8(our call) +1.83(what villain has behind)+1.83(what we have behind).

If its not 10.02 wouldnt it be 8.19? You are not counting our 1.8 call in your calculation.
1.8/8.19 = 21%, which is still an obv call.

Can somebody clarify? ty ty

Did some reading and you are right about not counting my future bet, but wrong in how you calculate your %. Implied odds are 6.39 : 1.8, as a ratio. As a % it is (1.8/(6.39+1.8))*100 = 21%.

hand 1 - played perfectly imo
hand 2 - call pre is close but fine. Flop you can shove with very limited fold equity and flip, or you can call. Turn is close.