02-28-2011 10:08 AM
#1
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02-28-2011 10:36 AM
#2
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02-28-2011 11:46 AM
#3
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02-28-2011 11:56 AM
#4
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My problem with this logic in this spot is that villain nearly never has a set here. If he flopped it, he bets the flop because it's scary, and if he didn't flop it, he has an overpair, which he also bets on this flop. Since the flop was check-check, we can be 99% sure villain does not have set/overpair. | |
02-28-2011 12:22 PM
#5
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02-28-2011 04:28 PM
#6
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Perhaps, though I'd certainly expect set or KK to bet closer to the pot on the turn, though I'm not entirely convinced he does check this very often. I usually check over to the raiser if I hit my set oop, but not on a scary flop unless I'm 100% sure the raiser is betting. | |
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