A question on implied odds

The reason i called the 3bet was for flush value, knowing villain would likely stack off and isn't playing any drawing hands except for AKs, which obviously can't be spades. Perhaps this is my first error? Is playing for a flush enough to call? If I was on the button and it was folded to me after his raise, would it be any better knowing his range? (QQ+AKs,AK)

Either way, I call and the flop gives me a flush draw. The pot is 15.5 and villain c bets the pot size: 15.5+15.5= 31. Our odds are 31:15.5 or 2:1. Assuming we can get the rest of his stack if we call (another 31 BB) we get 62:15.5 or about 4:1 implied odds.

Now this is where i get a bit confused. My odds of hitting a flush on the turn are 38:9 or 4.2:1, making this the wrong call, or marginal at best. But if i plug the numbers into poker stove, it gives me about 42% equity vs. his range(QQ+, AK). Now would calling be correct?

I know this is a ton of questions, and i really appreciate all of you who take the time to help out!

fold pre. Not even remotely close. Villain is 50bb deep. If you think villain's range is nutted then you don't have flush odds, dumb odds, spew odds, whatever you choose to call them odds.

Originally Posted by Socristotle

The reason i called the 3bet was for flush value,

bad.

Originally Posted by Socristotle

Now this is where i get a bit confused. My odds of hitting a flush on the turn are 38:9 or 4.2:1, making this the wrong call, or marginal at best. But if i plug the numbers into poker stove, it gives me about 42% equity vs. his range(QQ+, AK).

this is because hitting a Q on the turn/river beats the AK in his range, and hitting a K beats the QQ in his range.