Quote Originally Posted by G3O
Thank you. You guys are great.


Crunchynuts,

I like your math. Now, if I am to express this in odds-

100 / 41 (chance from your Inversion example) = 2.439 or 1 : 1.439

I take this to mean that I will hit at least one pair once for every 2.439 times I try. Am I right or am I way off?
...IF you pay all the way to the river. hehe, Thats not something I am going to do.