How to incorporate air into calling all-in?

Villain was 48/16/1.6 over small sample but I had watched him play a few hands and had a few reads on him.

PokerStars No-Limit Hold'em, $0.05 BB (8 handed) - Poker-Stars Converter Tool from FlopTurnRiver.com

Villain (UTG) ($4.54)
UTG+1 ($1.86)
MP1 ($2.30)
MP2 ($6.84)
CO ($7.05)
Button ($2.81)
Hero (SB) ($6.22)
BB ($5.88)

Preflop: Hero is SB with Q, Q
Villain calls $0.05, 2 folds, MP2 calls $0.05, CO calls $0.05, 1 fold, Hero bets $0.30, 1 fold, Villain calls $0.25, 2 folds

Flop: ($0.75) 3, 4, 4 (2 players)
Hero bets $0.75, Villain calls $0.75

Turn: ($2.25) 6 (2 players)
Hero bets $1.25, Villain calls $1.25

I felt given his calling on flop and turn that he had a FD a lot here. The hands I watched him play he usually reraised on flop or turn with TP or 2 pair type hands. Even if he had trip 4's I still think he reraises by the turn although I cant rule it out.

River: ($4.75) 10 (2 players)
Hero checks, Villain bets $2.24 (All-In), Hero calls $2.24

I checked river hoping to induce a bet b/c he was spewy and fishy. I am really only worried about trip 4's and TT. I didn't rule either out but was pretty confident that he would have played differently with trips and that he had other cards in his range. I insta called b/c I was very confident that his busted FD range made it a call.

Question is: How do I incorporate this into Pokerstove? Is it as simple as typing in a bunch of suited hands that he would have called preflop with and running the equity?

Open to any other comments.

here's how you do it:
put his made hands into pokerstove
get your equity vs. his made hands

if it's enough then it doesn't matter
if it's not enough, then calculate what % of the time he has to be bluffing for you to make money on the call

so say you need 33% equity to make a pot sized call
say pokerstove gives you 20% equity vs. his value range

that means that he has to have his value range 83% of the time and air 17% of the time
.83 * .2 = 0.166 (20% equity vs. value)
.17 * 1 = 0.17 (100% equity vs. air)
total chance of winning the hand is 33.6%

if he bluffs less than 17% we will lose, if he bluffs more we will make money

btw if you put your example into pokerstove it's not even close because we have odds to call without him bluffing ever

Board: 3d 4c 4d 6c Th

Hand 0: 27.273% { QdQh }
Hand 1: 72.727% { 66, 33, AcTc, AdTd, A4s, KdTd }

we need 24% to call

Ahhh, sweet.
Thanks, wasnt sure how to do that.....looks pretty straight forward.

What iopq said. Also bet larger preflop. You are OOP with 3 limpers, they will may more with inferior hands. And bet turn larger. The size you used on the turn made for a nice river pot size to stack size, leaving about a 1/2 PSB. However, on the turn villain will call larger with inferior ranges, thus making a larger mistake, and being more committed on the river.

I am still confused on one thing;
How do you come up with the calculation to find what the breakeven point on his value range?
In Iopq's example, I had 20% equity but need 33%, how do you quickly find out what percent of the time he needs to have air to make it a call?

I just did it the easy way and multiplied .85 (value range) by .2, and .15 is air
that came out to .32 and we needed .33 so I increased air by 2% and got 33.6%

you can do a formula something like (1-air%)*equity + air% = equity we need

so in our example it would be (1-A)*.2 + A = .33
.2 - .2A + A = .33
.8A = .13
A = 16.25% which is more accurate

Excellent!

I'm putting this into my poker file as we speak...
thx