If you're getting paid 2-to-1 to hit the stonecold nuts - that means that if you have better than a 1 in 3 chance of hitting the stonecold nuts, it is a good bet.
i dont understand. 50% of the pot vs winning 35%.
If you play the hand 3 times, you win once and take a buy-in but have lost two buyins of your own the other two times you lost. how is that making money in the long run?
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Originally Posted by pokerroomace
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