Dealt 3 Pocket Pairs, Flopped 3 Sets. What are the chances?

I was playing my weekly home game and on the first three hands, my friend was dealt three pocket pairs...99, 44, and QQ respectively. She flopped sets on all three of those hands!! Kudos to someone who can come up with the math and display it in chance percentage or "# to 1" form of being dealt 3 pocket pairs and flopping 3 sets! I am just curious. I'm thinking it's around 20,000 to 1 or something like that...never seen this in my 2 years of playing!

Who cares

50/50. Either it happens, or it doesn't.

Live poker is so rigged

Ironically,

The odds of that happening are the same as her catching those 4 pocket pairs and NOT getting a set,

Or having the first one miss, but the middle one hit, but the last one miss.

DUCY?

0.000000273359449

The odds of that happening are about 3.65 million to 1.

BTW the odds of her being dealt 3 pp's in a row and not flopping a set with any of them is a tad less than 7000 : 1.

so you will now go 3.65 million times being dealt 3 pocket pairs without flopping a set

STBY

0 if you're me

Originally Posted by Jack Sawyer

so you will now go 3.65 million times being dealt 3 pocket pairs without flopping a set

STBY

No, the chances of you getting dealt pocket pairs in each of three consecutive hands and flopping a set each time are 3.65e6:1

The odds of having 3 consecutive PPs and NOT flopping a set with any of them are 7000:1 against. The clarification I would like to get however is if the meaning of this is that every 7000 hands you expect this to happen once or every 7000 iterations of 3 hands (or 21,000 hands) you expect this to happen once.

Originally Posted by overflow

Originally Posted by Jack Sawyer

so you will now go 3.65 million times being dealt 3 pocket pairs without flopping a set

STBY

No, the chances of you getting dealt pocket pairs in each of three consecutive hands and flopping a set each time are 3.65e6:1

The odds of having 3 consecutive PPs and NOT flopping a set with any of them are 7000:1 against. The clarification I would like to get however is if the meaning of this is that every 7000 hands you expect this to happen once or every 7000 iterations of 3 hands (or 21,000 hands) you expect this to happen once.

ok my maths is ropey at best but surely you can just repeat each iteration or whatever every hand. ie your second - fourth hands of the day this happens doesn't count as a fail so you'd expect it to happen once every 7k hands amiright?

why was he dealt three hands at the same time?

Originally Posted by overflow

The odds of that happening are about 3.65 million to 1.

WOW! Thank you for the answer overflow I didn't think the odds were that serious!!

Originally Posted by a500lbgorilla

why was he dealt three hands at the same time?

No the first three hands in our home game, she was dealt 3 pocket pairs and all 3 times she flopped sets.

Originally Posted by Kid Style

Originally Posted by a500lbgorilla

why was he dealt three hands at the same time?

No the first three hands in our home game, she was dealt 3 pocket pairs and all 3 times she flopped sets.

i lol'd irl.

Originally Posted by sil693

Originally Posted by Kid Style

Originally Posted by a500lbgorilla

why was he dealt three hands at the same time?

No the first three hands in our home game, she was dealt 3 pocket pairs and all 3 times she flopped sets.

i lol'd irl.

I thought it was quite hilarious too actually. Once she was dealt hand #3 she started cracking up pre-flop as well.

BTW, we've been playing for 2 years and she happens to be a losing player, so I hardly doubt the hands were rigged. But you never know....

Originally Posted by Kid Style

Originally Posted by sil693

Originally Posted by Kid Style

Originally Posted by a500lbgorilla

why was he dealt three hands at the same time?

No the first three hands in our home game, she was dealt 3 pocket pairs and all 3 times she flopped sets.

i lol'd irl.

I thought it was quite hilarious too actually. Once she was dealt hand #3 she started cracking up pre-flop as well.

BTW, we've been playing for 2 years and she happens to be a losing player, so I hardly doubt the hands were rigged. But you never know....

Wow, you take toilet breaks and stuff though right?? Man I love poker and all but I don't think I could play for that long. How many games is that!?

iRICHeyes would know.

1 in 1

Originally Posted by Kid Style

Originally Posted by overflow

The odds of that happening are about 3.65 million to 1.

WOW! Thank you for the answer overflow I didn't think the odds were that serious!!

There's a flaw in this thinking. Overflow is calculating the probability of being dealt pp's and flopping the set 3x.

But we wouldn't start counting until we hit the second one. The first "one is a row" is irrelevant.

The probability of flopping two sets in a row is 0.000056, which is just as likely to happen after flopping a set as it as after flopping air.

BTW, the probability you're trying to estimate above is more like 4.19 million to 1, if you use exact probabilities.

the odds are she played them all terrible iyam

Originally Posted by Deanglow

the odds are she played them all terrible iyam

now that was funny