66 mp open set vs aggression

villain is 20-10 wannabe good but not quite getting it.
66 open seems standard, and i have to c-bet my set weak to induce against this type of fish cos i want to rep AK style hands.

Villain's range for the raise is sets/over-pairs/A7 on this board and isn't stupid enough to shove over a 3-bet without a set.
Call, check-shove turn?
Party Poker No-Limit Hold'em, $0.25 BB (6 handed) - Party-Poker Converter Tool from FlopTurnRiver.com

SB ($26.25)
BB ($26.70)
Button ($35)
Hero (MP) ($25)
CO ($12)
UTG ($26.59)

Preflop: Hero is MP with 6, 6
1 fold, Hero bets $1, 1 fold, Button calls $1, 2 folds

Flop: ($2.35) 2, 6, 7 (2 players)
Hero bets $1, Button raises $3.93,

vs. sets you are 50/50 (50% he has 22, 50% he has 77) so its balanced. If you 3bet will he flat with overpairs? Or will he auto-fold like 88-JJ but continue with QQ+? If he continues with most overpairs i say 3bet. And whos to say hes not raising a draw? like 89 or 45? Both of these could easily be in his range considering hes IP.

Anyways, I think flatting might be bad if he's raising something like 88-JJ because a Q, K, or A will spook him. I think a 3bet to $10-12 is in order.

he can't 3b on the flop it's called a raise!

Um, i assumed that anything of the bet, get raised, reraise is bet/3bet situation. I guess I'm wrong, although I've heard it that terminology before, so I'm not the only one.

you're right, iopq is wrong, re-raising the flop would be considered 3betting it.

quick question for Daven, if he's not felting A7s,88-JJ here and you feel that makes up the majority of his range, how are you playing air on this flop to this action?

Originally Posted by bigspenda73

quick question for Daven, if he's not felting A7s,88-JJ here and you feel that makes up the majority of his range, how are you playing air on this flop to this action?

cos villain is unknown (and i am unknown) i'm not merging/balancing etc. I'll be c-betting air stronger and likely folding to action cos his range is stronger when I can exclude an ace and add 66, plus his raising range is way stronger vs a decent c-bet.

if he's a wannabe then he's probably read a poker article or two, in which case his raise looks like he's ready to play his hand. He raised 4x's when he was in position AND (maybe more importantly) he was sure to make it look like he wasn't betting $4 (even though he essentially was). This is definitely a raise for value and i'd even guess that he's looking to get it all in on the flop. in other words, i think he's at the very least calling a 3bet.

as for his range for calling/jamming after a 3bet, we're 50% against sets, and there's gotta be AT LEAST a one percent chance he's got something else in his range. I definitely think villain is happy getting QQ+ and 76s all in on the flop. this disagrees with your read, but then again you also said that both you and your opponent were unknowns to each other, so i think this read is hasty and a little overly cautious

wait no that's right I'm wrong

Dustin 1 iopq a lot more

just realised that this hand gets more interesting if I hold qq, or does it

Originally Posted by daven

just realised that this hand gets more interesting if I hold qq, or does it

i definitely think so. i'm still unlikely to fold (prolly call reval turn), but with your reads the hand is at least more interesting than having the second nuts

4-bet all in?

Hey spenda I was thinking about that question you asked Daven and was wondering:

If we give him a range of 22/77/A7s/JJ-88 and think he's folding those hands you said to a 4bet shovel then can't we 4bet bluff here profitably w/air? This is a part of poker I am just beginning to touch on. He's folding 82% of that range and our BE point for a fold if we shove is 76% I believe. Just throwing this out there.