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I never would have thought of that by myself, so if villains 5bets rely on fold equity and pot equity when called then;
If we start calling more 5bets we reduce his fold equity but we get into more all-in situations. If we start calling wide then his 5bets have little fold equity against us and rely more heavily on showdown equity. So 5 betting a weak range would become less appealing to villain as he has little fold equity he will have to narrow his range to increase his showdown equity vs my range? If I’m calling a lot that is, seems like the obvious adjustment for him.
So if villain 5bets all-in with a weak range then he wins when I fold and he will still win the pot x% of the time when I call.
If villain 3bets a weak range he only wins if I fold, he can also win if he flops big but that won’t happen very often. I don’t think I’v caught on to what you were trying to point out here, I’ll have to think over this one again.
I’m going to try and see how my second range plays out here;
So I’ve got my opening range {22+, AT+, KT+, QT+, JT} A total of 238 combinations.
Villain 3bets us and we can see from his bet sizing that we will be exploitable to
3bet bluffs with any two cards if we are folding more than 60% of the time.
238*0.6=142.8 so the maximum amount of combos I can fold to his 3bet without being exploited is lets say 143. I think I should be folding fairly close to this number as I am OOP and the mistakes that I will inevitably make post flop vs him will be larger due to the smaller SPR’s.
In my second range I suggested folding to 3bet with {22-88 AT KT QT+ JT} for a total of 7 paired hands and 5 unpaired hands which = 122 combinations. This means I will be folding to 3bet 51% of the time this is a lot better than ~17% in my first suggested range.
I suggested calling 3bets with {99-TT AJ+ KQ KJ} this is a total of 2 paired hands and 5 unpaired hands for a total of 92 combos. Which means I will be calling a 3bet 38.6% of the time.
Then I suggest 4bet calling {JJ+} which is 4 paired hands for a total of 24 combos. I will be 4bet calling 10% of the time.
Since im never folding to a 5bet I think the EV equation would look like this;
Assuming the same 4bet and 5bet sizing as your previous post.
<EV, shove> = (1)(E)($8.93)+(1)(1-E)(-$7.43)
Since there are only two possible outcomes, I call his 5bet and he wins the pot his equity% of the time or I call his 5bet and he loses his bet, 1 minus his equity % of the time.
I’m only realizing now I don’t know how you get 8.93 in the ev equation.
If I call his 5bet 7.43+7.43+ the 2.70 already in the pot would the pot not be ~$17?
Since I’m never folding he can only 5bet profitably against me with a hand that has >50% equity vs my calling range I think? So KK seems like the worst hands that has >50% equity QQ only has 40%. So he can only 5bet a range of KK+ profitably. Breaking the EV formula down and comparing it to 0 villains EV from folding to my 4bets isn’t necessary here is it since im never folding to 5bets he can only 5bet with over 50% equity? This logic just hit me when I was thinking about those ranges is this correct?
Apologies for such a monster post.
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